Early 2026 AP Biology worked solutions

Early Solutions to the 2026 AP Biology FRQs | Step by Step

Work through all six free-response questions with the experiment logic, data evidence, biological mechanisms, calculations, graph interpretation, and final wording made explicit.

6 complete FRQs 32 labeled subparts Graphs and data tables Student-friendly reasoning
Start with FRQ 1

Important: These are early, unofficial solutions based on the uploaded independent educational solution guide. They are not official College Board scoring guidelines. Numerical graph readings are approximate where the source PDF reports them as approximate.

What each 2026 AP Biology FRQ tests

For broader review, use the verified AP Biology guide or browse the AP Biology FRQ archive.

FRQ 1Nucleotides, controls, stomatal closure, and DORN1 signaling.
FRQ 2siRNA, AGO2, error bars, mRNA cleavage, and percent change.
FRQ 3Cellular respiration, CCO inhibition, ATP, controls, and lactate.
FRQ 4Meiosis, nondisjunction, gene dosage, aneuploidy, and triploidy.
FRQ 5Storm intensity, heritable toe pads, natural selection, and speciation.
FRQ 6Box plots, raptor decline, keystone species, and ecosystem resilience.

Free-response question 1

Nucleotides, stomatal closure, and DORN1 signaling

Experimental design and cell signaling
Experimental logic. The chemical treatment is the independent variable, and relative stomatal size is the measured response. The second experiment changes receptor genotype to test whether Ap4A and Cp4C act through DORN1.
FRQ 1 paired bar graphs comparing relative stomatal size after buffer, Ap4A, Cp4C, and ABA treatments in nonmutated plants and DORN1-mutant plants, including standard-error bars
Figure 1 placeholder: paired treatment graphs for nonmutated and DORN1-mutant plants. The source guide reports approximate bar heights read from the supplied plots.

Part A: Identify the structural components of a nucleotide

Task. Name the three components required to form a nucleotide.
  1. Recall what a nucleotide is.

    A nucleotide is the monomer of nucleic acids and can also function in signaling and energy transfer.

  2. Name the three components.

    Each nucleotide contains a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar such as ribose or deoxyribose, and a nitrogenous base.

Final answerA nucleotide consists of a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogenous base.

Part B(i): Identify the dependent variable

Task. State the response that the scientists measured after each treatment.
  1. Separate the changed variable from the measured variable.

    The scientists changed the compound added to the buffer, making treatment the independent variable.

  2. Identify the measurement.

    They measured the stomatal width-to-length ratio and expressed it relative to the buffer-only sample.

Final answerThe dependent variable was relative stomatal size, measured as the stomatal width-to-length ratio relative to the buffer-only group.

Part B(ii): Compare Cp4C with the buffer treatment

Task. Use the graph to describe the effect of Cp4C on stomatal size.
  1. Read the approximate bar heights.

    The buffer baseline is approximately \(1.00\), while the Cp4C treatment is approximately \(0.62\).

  2. Calculate the difference from baseline.

    \[ 1.00-0.62=0.38 \]

    The Cp4C value is therefore about \(38\%\) below the buffer baseline.

  3. Translate the lower ratio biologically.

    A smaller width-to-length ratio indicates smaller, more closed stomata.

Final answerThe Cp4C-treated stomata had a relative size of about \(0.62\), compared with \(1.00\) for buffer alone, so they were approximately \(38\%\) smaller relative to the buffer baseline.

Part B(iii): Explain why buffer alone is a control

Task. Explain what alternative effects the buffer-only group controls.
  1. Recognize the possible confounding factor.

    The experimental compounds are dissolved in buffer, so the buffer itself could affect the leaf tissue.

  2. Identify the shared conditions.

    The buffer-only plants experience the same light exposure, handling, solvent, and timing as the treated plants.

  3. State the controlled conclusion.

    Differences from the buffer group can be attributed more confidently to Ap4A, Cp4C, or ABA instead of to the procedure.

Final answerBuffer alone provides the baseline and controls for effects of the solvent, light exposure, handling, and timing. Differences in stomatal size can therefore be attributed more confidently to the added compound.

Part C(i): Explain why ABA is included

Task. Identify ABA's control function in the stomatal-closure experiment.
  1. Use known ABA biology.

    Abscisic acid, or ABA, is known to cause stomatal closure.

  2. Classify the control.

    Because ABA is expected to produce closure, it serves as a positive control.

  3. Explain what its response verifies.

    ABA still reduces stomatal size in DORN1 mutants, showing that their guard cells and downstream closing machinery can respond. The missing Ap4A response is therefore linked specifically to DORN1 signaling rather than a general inability to close.

Final answerABA is a positive control because it is known to close stomata. Its effect confirms that the samples and downstream stomatal-closing machinery can respond, including in DORN1-mutant plants.

Part C(ii): Compare Ap4A and Cp4C in DORN1 mutants

Task. Use the mutant graph to compare the two treatments.
  1. Read the mutant Ap4A bar.

    The relative stomatal size after Ap4A treatment is approximately (1.10).

  2. Read the mutant Cp4C bar.

    The relative stomatal size after Cp4C treatment is approximately (0.70).

  3. Compare the biological effects.

    Cp4C produces much more closure than Ap4A in the mutant plants. The displayed error bars are separated, strengthening the visual difference.

Final answerIn DORN1-mutant plants, Cp4C produced substantially smaller stomata than Ap4A: approximately (0.70) compared with (1.10) relative stomatal size.

Part C(iii): Predict production of closure-inducing molecules

Task. Predict how Ap4A-treated mutant cells compare with nonmutated cells.
  1. Establish the nonmutated response.

    In nonmutated plants, Ap4A reduces relative stomatal size from about \(1.00\) to \(0.65\), indicating activation of a closing pathway.

  2. Compare the mutant response.

    In DORN1 mutants, Ap4A does not reduce stomatal size; the value remains near or above the buffer value.

  3. Connect receptor loss to downstream output.

    If DORN1 activation normally induces closure molecules, losing the Ap4A response predicts reduced production of those downstream molecules.

Final answerAp4A-treated DORN1-mutant cells should produce less, or little to none, of the downstream stomatal-closing molecules compared with nonmutated cells because the Ap4A-induced response is lost.

Part D(i): Predict defense-gene transcription with a truncated receptor

Task. Predict the effect of deleting most of DORN1's intracellular domain.
  1. Separate receptor binding from signal relay.

    A membrane receptor needs an extracellular ligand-binding region and an intracellular region that interacts with signaling proteins.

  2. Apply the deletion.

    The truncated receptor may still bind Ap4A outside the cell, but it cannot efficiently activate the intracellular signaling cascade.

  3. Predict the transcriptional result.

    Without effective signal transmission to transcription factors, defense-gene transcription should be much lower than in nonmutated cells.

Final answerAp4A should cause little or no increase in plant-defense-gene transcription in cells homozygous for the truncated receptor, so transcription will be lower than in Ap4A-treated nonmutated cells.

Part D(ii): Justify the transcription prediction

Task. Explain the failed step in the signaling pathway.
  1. Locate the required receptor function.

    The intracellular domain relays receptor activation to cytoplasmic signaling proteins and ultimately to transcription factors.

  2. Explain the causal consequence.

    Removing most of that domain prevents Ap4A binding from being efficiently transmitted into the cell, so the defense genes are not strongly activated.

Final answerThe intracellular domain is required for signal transduction to cytoplasmic proteins and transcription factors. Its deletion blocks efficient signaling even if ligand binding occurs, so defense-gene activation is weak or absent.
Common pitfall: Do not say only that the receptor “does not work.” Specify that ligand binding may occur but intracellular signal transduction and transcription-factor activation are impaired.

Free-response question 2

siRNA, AGO2, mRNA cleavage, and gene regulation

Gene expression and data analysis
Experimental logic. Compare relative mRNA abundance for Gene G and Gene H across cells with two, one, or zero functional copies of AGO2. The standard errors show the uncertainty displayed with each mean.
Relative average mRNA amount ± SE
Gene\(AGO2^{+/+}\)\(AGO2^{+/-}\)\(AGO2^{-/-}\)
Gene G\(1.0\pm0.1\)\(0.9\pm0.4\)\(1.5\pm0.5\)
Gene H\(1.0\pm0.1\)\(2.0\pm0.1\)\(3.0\pm0.4\)

Part A: Identify one location of eukaryotic ribosomes

Task. State one valid cellular location where eukaryotic ribosomes occur.
  1. Recall the two standard locations.

    Free ribosomes occur in the cytosol and synthesize many cytosolic proteins. Other ribosomes attach to the cytosolic surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum and synthesize proteins entering the endomembrane system.

  2. Give either acceptable location.

    The question requires only one; including both is still biologically correct.

Final answerOne acceptable location is free in the cytosol. Another acceptable location is attached to the cytosolic surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Part B(i): Construct the grouped bar graph

Task. Graph both genes for all three genotypes, including standard-error bars.
  1. Set up the axes.

    Place the three AGO2 genotypes on the horizontal axis. Label the vertical axis “relative average amount of mRNA” and begin it at zero.

  2. Choose a sufficient vertical scale.

    The axis must extend above (3.4) so the largest mean plus its error bar fits.

  3. Plot both genes.

    Draw one Gene G bar and one Gene H bar for each genotype at the means in the table.

  4. Add uncertainty and identification.

    Add error bars equal to the stated standard errors and include a legend that distinguishes Gene G from Gene H.

FRQ 2 grouped bar graph of Gene G and Gene H relative mRNA amounts for AGO2 plus plus, AGO2 plus minus, and AGO2 minus minus genotypes, with standard-error bars
Figure 2 placeholder: correctly labeled grouped bar graph with means, standard-error bars, genotype categories, and a two-gene legend.
Final answerA complete graph has a quantitative y-axis, the three genotype categories on the x-axis, correctly placed bars for both genes, all stated error bars, and a key distinguishing Gene G from Gene H.

Part B(ii): Identify Gene G groups visually consistent with \(AGO2^{+/+}\)

Task. Use overlap of the displayed standard-error bars, as directed by the source solution, to compare Gene G groups.
  1. Convert each mean and SE to a displayed interval.

    \[ \begin{aligned} AGO2^{+/+}&:1.0\pm0.1=[0.9,1.1]\\ AGO2^{+/-}&:0.9\pm0.4=[0.5,1.3]\\ AGO2^{-/-}&:1.5\pm0.5=[1.0,2.0] \end{aligned} \]
  2. Check overlap with the wild-type range.

    Both the heterozygous interval and the homozygous-nonfunctional interval overlap the (AGO2^{+/+}) interval.

Final answerUsing overlap of the displayed error bars, Gene G mRNA amounts in all three genotypes—\(AGO2^{+/+}\), \(AGO2^{+/-}\), and \(AGO2^{-/-}\)—are visually treated as statistically the same as the \(AGO2^{+/+}\) amount.
Scientific caution: The PDF uses overlap of the displayed ±SE bars as the visual criterion intended by the prompt. Formal statistical equivalence or significance requires an appropriate statistical test; error-bar overlap alone does not establish it.

Part C(i): Relate wild-type copy number to Gene H mRNA

Task. Describe the pattern as functional AGO2 copy number decreases.
  1. Read the three Gene H means.

    Two wild-type copies give (1.0), one wild-type copy gives (2.0), and zero wild-type copies gives (3.0).

  2. State the relationship.

    Gene H mRNA increases as the number of functional AGO2 copies decreases.

  3. Connect the pattern to function.

    The inverse relationship is consistent with functional AGO2 promoting cleavage and removal of Gene H mRNA.

Final answerGene H mRNA increases as wild-type AGO2 copy number decreases: (1.0) with two functional copies, (2.0) with one, and (3.0) with none.

Part C(ii): Calculate the percent increase in Gene H mRNA

Task. Find the percent increase from \(AGO2^{+/-}\) to \(AGO2^{-/-}\).
  1. Identify the original and new values.

    The original value is (2.0) in (AGO2^{+/-}) cells, and the new value is (3.0) in (AGO2^{-/-}) cells.

  2. Apply the percent-increase formula.

    \[ \text{Percent increase}=\frac{\text{new}-\text{original}}{\text{original}}\times100 =\frac{3.0-2.0}{2.0}\times100=50\%. \]
Final answerThe average Gene H mRNA amount increases by \(\boxed{50\%}\).

Part D(i): Evaluate stronger regulation of Gene H

Task. Use the means and error bars to determine which gene is more strongly affected by loss of AGO2.
  1. Compare Gene H in wild type and null cells.

    Gene H rises from (1.0) in (AGO2^{+/+}) cells to (3.0) in (AGO2^{-/-}) cells, a threefold increase.

  2. Use the displayed uncertainty.

    The Gene H error bars for the three genotypes do not overlap, so the genotype-dependent differences are visually clear.

  3. Contrast Gene G.

    Gene G changes only from (1.0) to (1.5), and all displayed Gene G error-bar ranges overlap.

  4. Make the regulatory conclusion.

    Loss of AGO2 has a much larger effect on Gene H mRNA abundance than on Gene G.

Final answerThe claim is supported: Gene H rises threefold from (1.0) to (3.0) with separated error bars, whereas Gene G changes less and has overlapping error bars. AGO2-mediated cleavage therefore has a greater regulatory effect on Gene H.

Part D(ii): Explain how \(AGO2^{-/-}\) could block anaphase I

Task. Connect failed mRNA cleavage to persistent spindle-fiber stabilization.
  1. Identify the missing molecular action.

    siRNA can bind a complementary target mRNA, but functional AGO2 is required to cleave that mRNA.

  2. Predict the mRNA and protein consequence.

    In (AGO2^{-/-}) cells, the target mRNA persists and remains available for translation, so the spindle-fiber stabilizing protein can accumulate.

  3. Connect protein excess to chromosome movement.

    Persistent stabilization prevents spindle fibers from changing as required to move homologous chromosomes to opposite poles during anaphase I.

Final answerWithout AGO2, the mRNA encoding the spindle-fiber stabilizing protein is not efficiently cleaved. It persists and is translated, producing excess stabilizing protein that keeps spindle fibers stable and prevents homologous chromosomes from separating during anaphase I.

Free-response question 3

Cyanide, cytochrome c oxidase, ATP, and lactic acid

Cellular respiration and controls
Experimental logic. Compare high- and low-concentration bacterial media with or without cyanide. Cyanide concentration affects cytochrome c oxidase (CCO), electron transport, and the balance between oxidative phosphorylation and glycolysis.
GroupCyanide in medium?Medium concentration
1YesHigh
2YesLow
3NoHigh
4NoLow

Part A: Explain an advantage of aerobic respiration

Task. Compare the energy yield of aerobic respiration with glycolysis alone.
  1. Identify the limitation of glycolysis alone.

    Glycolysis produces only a small net amount of ATP per glucose because much of the glucose's chemical energy remains in pyruvate.

  2. Identify the additional aerobic pathways.

    Aerobic respiration continues through pyruvate oxidation, the citric acid cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis.

  3. Explain the advantage.

    These pathways oxidize glucose more completely and capture much more of its energy as ATP.

Final answerAerobic cellular respiration produces substantially more ATP from each glucose molecule than glycolysis alone because the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation extract much more of the glucose's chemical energy.

Part B: Identify the control groups

Task. Determine which groups control for the absence of bacterial cyanide.
  1. Identify the factor of interest.

    The experimental factor is cyanide released into the bacterial medium.

  2. Find the no-cyanide comparisons.

    Groups 3 and 4 use medium from bacteria that do not produce cyanide.

  3. Explain why both concentrations are needed.

    Using high- and low-concentration no-cyanide media controls for medium concentration and for other substances in the bacterial medium.

Final answerTreatment groups (3) and (4) served as the controls.

Part C: Predict the group with the highest ATP production

Task. Use the reported effects of cyanide concentration on CCO activity.
  1. Rule out the high-cyanide group.

    High cyanide greatly decreases CCO activity, so Group 1 should have reduced electron transport and ATP production.

  2. Establish the no-cyanide baseline.

    Groups 3 and 4 should have normal CCO activity with respect to cyanide.

  3. Use the low-cyanide effect.

    The prompt reports that low cyanide slightly increases CCO activity. Group 2 is the low-cyanide treatment, so it is predicted to have the highest ATP production.

Final answerGroup (2) is predicted to produce the most ATP because its low cyanide concentration slightly increases CCO activity, which can increase electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.

Part D: Explain why CCO inhibition increases lactic acid

Task. Trace the mechanism from electron-transport inhibition to lactate production.
  1. Block electron flow.

    CCO transfers electrons near the end of the mitochondrial electron transport chain. Inhibiting CCO slows or stops electron flow.

  2. Reduce oxidative phosphorylation.

    Lower electron flow reduces proton pumping, weakens the proton gradient, and decreases ATP synthesis by ATP synthase.

  3. Increase dependence on glycolysis.

    To maintain ATP production, the cells rely more heavily on glycolysis.

  4. Regenerate the oxidized electron carrier.

    Glycolysis requires (NAD^+). Reducing pyruvate to lactate regenerates (NAD^+) from (NADH), allowing glycolysis to continue.

  5. State the final outcome.

    Greater use of this pathway increases lactate, or lactic acid, production.

CCO inhibitedelectron transport slowsproton gradient and oxidative phosphorylation decreaseglycolysis increasespyruvate is reduced to lactate and \(NAD^+\) is regenerated
Final answerCCO inhibition decreases electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation, so cells rely more on glycolysis for ATP. Reducing pyruvate to lactate regenerates (NAD^+) and keeps glycolysis running, causing lactic acid production to increase.
Common pitfall: Lactic acid fermentation does not produce a large ATP yield. Glycolysis produces the ATP; fermentation regenerates (NAD^+) so glycolysis can continue.

Free-response question 4

Meiosis, nondisjunction, gene dosage, and triploidy

Cell division and chromosome inheritance
Diagram logic. Chromosome 1 undergoes nondisjunction. The resulting four gametes contain either both Chromosome 1 homologs or no Chromosome 1, while Chromosome 2 segregates normally.
FRQ 4 meiosis diagram showing Chromosome 1 nondisjunction in an animal cell and four gametes, two containing both Chromosome 1 homologs and two containing no Chromosome 1
Figure 4 placeholder: meiosis diagram with Chromosome 1 nondisjunction and the four resulting gametes.

Part A: Describe chromosome movement in Meiosis I

Task. State what separates during anaphase I and what remains joined.
  1. Start with homolog pairing.

    Homologous chromosomes pair during prophase I and align as homologous pairs at metaphase I.

  2. Identify the anaphase I movement.

    The two homologs move to opposite poles.

  3. Distinguish sister chromatids.

    Sister chromatids remain attached at their centromeres until Meiosis II.

Final answerDuring anaphase I, homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles while the sister chromatids of each chromosome remain joined.

Part B: Explain why chromosomes are more visible during division

Task. Compare chromatin organization during interphase and cell division.
  1. Describe interphase chromatin.

    During interphase, DNA is largely decondensed, allowing transcription and replication machinery to access it.

  2. Describe division-stage chromatin.

    Before and during mitosis or meiosis, chromatin coils and condenses into short, thick chromosomes.

  3. Connect condensation to observation.

    The compact, discrete structures are easier to distinguish with a light microscope than diffuse chromatin.

Final answerChromosomes are more visible during mitosis and meiosis because chromatin condenses into short, thick, discrete chromosomes instead of remaining spread through the nucleus as diffuse chromatin.

Part C: Predict mRNA production in the four zygotes

Task. Use chromosome copy number to compare total mRNA output, assuming transcription per gene copy is unchanged.
  1. Read the abnormal gametes from left to right.

    The first two gametes contain both homologs of Chromosome 1. The last two contain no Chromosome 1.

  2. Add the normal fertilizing gamete.

    A normal gamete contributes one copy of Chromosome 1 to every zygote.

  3. Determine zygote copy number.

    Zygotes 1 and 2 contain three copies of Chromosome 1. Zygotes 3 and 4 contain one copy.

  4. Translate copy number into mRNA output.

    Because regulation per copy is unchanged, total mRNA is proportional to gene copy number. The high-copy and low-copy zygotes therefore have a (3:1) output ratio.

ZygotesChromosome 1 copiesRelative mRNA output
1 and 23, trisomy3 units; 1.5 times normal
3 and 41, monosomy1 unit; 0.5 times normal
Final answerThe first two zygotes each have three copies of Chromosome 1 and produce the same high mRNA amount. The last two each have one copy and produce the same low amount. The first two produce three times as much Chromosome 1 mRNA as the last two—\(50\%\) more and \(50\%\) less than a normal diploid zygote, respectively.

Part D: Explain why most triploid organisms cannot make normal gametes

Task. Connect an odd number of homologs to meiotic segregation and aneuploidy.
  1. Identify the triploid condition.

    A triploid cell has three homologs of every chromosome.

  2. Apply the pairing problem.

    Three homologs cannot pair and divide evenly between two daughter cells during Meiosis I.

  3. Describe likely segregation.

    The homologs often form a trivalent or a pair plus one unpaired chromosome and segregate in a (2:1) pattern.

  4. Scale the problem across the genome.

    Irregular segregation occurs independently for many chromosome types, so most gametes receive unequal chromosome numbers.

Final answerTriploid cells have an odd number of homologs, so three copies cannot pair and separate evenly during Meiosis I. Irregular (2:1) segregation across many chromosome types produces mostly aneuploid gametes rather than gametes with the normal haploid chromosome number.

Free-response question 5

Storms, toe pads, natural selection, and speciation

Evolution and geographic isolation
Map logic. Symbol shape indicates average toe-pad size, while symbol fill indicates storm intensity. The 2019 map follows the storm period and includes numbered regions.
FRQ 5 Caribbean map comparing lizard toe-pad size distributions before 2017 and in 2019, with symbol shape showing average toe-pad size and symbol fill showing storm intensity in numbered regions
Figure 6 placeholder: map of average toe-pad size and storm intensity before 2017 and in 2019.

Part A: Explain the role of abiotic change in natural selection

Task. Explain how a nonliving environmental change can alter a population over generations.
  1. Define the relevant environmental factor.

    Abiotic factors are nonliving conditions such as wind intensity, temperature, water availability, or salinity.

  2. Change the selective pressure.

    A change in an abiotic factor alters which phenotypes are most likely to survive and reproduce.

  3. Require heritability and differential reproduction.

    If the advantageous phenotype is heritable, individuals carrying its alleles contribute more offspring to the next generation.

  4. State the population-level outcome.

    Over generations, advantageous alleles increase in frequency, changing the population.

Final answerChanges in abiotic factors alter selective pressures. Individuals with heritable traits that improve survival or reproduction under the new conditions leave more offspring, causing the associated alleles to increase in frequency over generations.

Part B: Describe the relationship between storm intensity and toe-pad size

Task. Read the symbol shape and fill, then explain the observed trend.
  1. Decode the map.

    Symbol fill represents storm intensity, and symbol shape represents average toe-pad size.

  2. Compare low- and high-intensity regions.

    No-storm or least-intense regions are associated mainly with small toe pads, while more intense storms are associated with medium or large toe pads.

  3. State the relationship.

    The data show a positive association: average toe-pad size tends to increase as storm intensity increases.

  4. Explain a plausible selective mechanism.

    Larger toe pads can improve a lizard's ability to cling to trees during strong winds. Lizards carrying larger-pad alleles are more likely to survive severe storms and reproduce.

Final answerGreater storm intensity is associated with larger average toe pads. High-wind storms favor lizards that cling more effectively, so survivors with genetically larger toe pads contribute disproportionately to the offspring measured in 2019.

Part C: Identify the region with the least storm intensity

Task. Use the storm-intensity legend for the numbered regions.
  1. Distinguish “least” from “none.”

    The legend shows gray fill for the least storm intensity and white fill for no storms.

  2. Find the numbered gray symbol.

    Region 4 has the gray fill corresponding to the least storm intensity.

Final answer\(\boxed{\text{Region 4}}\) experienced the least storm intensity.

Part D: Explain how divergent selection could lead to speciation

Task. Connect different storm regimes, limited gene flow, and reproductive isolation.
  1. Establish different selective pressures.

    Different islands experience different storm intensities. High-storm islands strongly favor larger toe pads, while that advantage is weaker on low- or no-storm islands and may carry trade-offs.

  2. Limit gene flow.

    The island populations are geographically separated, so fewer alleles move among them.

  3. Allow genetic divergence to accumulate.

    Continued selection changes allele frequencies differently among islands. Mutation, drift, and selection can add further differences.

  4. Reach reproductive isolation.

    If accumulated differences produce prezygotic or postzygotic barriers, the populations can no longer interbreed successfully and become separate species.

Final answerDifferent storm intensities can favor different toe-pad alleles on different islands. Limited gene flow allows continued divergent selection to make the gene pools increasingly different. If those differences eventually prevent successful interbreeding, reproductive isolation and speciation occur.
Common pitfall: Individual lizards do not develop larger pads because they need them. Toe-pad size is genetically determined; the population changes through differential survival and reproduction of existing heritable variation.

Free-response question 6

Raptors, habitat conversion, keystone species, and resilience

Ecology and box-plot interpretation
Graph logic. Each region has a protected-area box and an unprotected-area box. The horizontal line within a box is the median annual percent change, and the dashed line marks zero change.
FRQ 6 box-and-whisker plot comparing annual percent change in raptor population size in protected and unprotected areas across Regions 1, 2, and 3, with a dashed line at zero percent
Figure 7 placeholder: protected and unprotected raptor-population box plots for three regions.

Part A: Read the median for unprotected Region 2

Task. Identify the correct box and estimate its median annual percent change.
  1. Select the unprotected box.

    The legend identifies the gray box as the unprotected area, so use the gray box for Region 2.

  2. Read the median line.

    The horizontal median line lies halfway between \(-2\%\) and \(-4\%\).

Final answerThe median annual percent change is approximately \(\boxed{-3\%\text{ per year}}\).

Part B: Identify the greatest median annual percent change

Task. Compare the medians of all six protected and unprotected boxes.
  1. Compare the horizontal median lines.

    Most medians lie below the zero-change line.

  2. Find the highest median.

    The protected-area box for Region 2 has a median at approximately \(0\%\), higher than all the negative medians.

Final answerThe protected area of Region 2 experienced the greatest median annual percent change, approximately \(\boxed{0\%\text{ per year}}\).

Part C: Evaluate the “no decline if farming is eliminated” hypothesis

Task. Use both the median and the spread of protected Region 2 data.
  1. Choose the relevant comparison.

    The protected area of Region 2 is the best available comparison for an area without farming.

  2. Use the medians as supporting evidence.

    The protected median is approximately \(0\%\), while the unprotected median is approximately \(-3\%\). This supports the idea that eliminating farming would reduce the typical decline.

  3. Use the negative protected values as limiting evidence.

    Part of the protected-area distribution remains below zero, and its lower whisker is near \(-2\%\). Some protected observations therefore still show declines.

  4. Recognize the observational limitation.

    Protected and unprotected areas may differ in other ways, so the comparison does not isolate farming as the only cause.

Final answerThe data partially support the hypothesis. Protected Region 2 has a median near \(0\%\), compared with about \(-3\%\) in the unprotected area, suggesting that eliminating farming could stop the typical decline. However, some protected values remain below zero, so the absolute claim of no decline is not supported.

Part D: Explain why ecosystem resilience may decline in unprotected areas

Task. Connect farming, raptor loss, trophic cascades, biodiversity, and recovery from disturbance.
  1. Begin with habitat conversion.

    Farming converts and fragments natural habitat, reducing nesting sites, prey availability, and raptor survival.

  2. Use the keystone-species concept.

    Raptors are top predators and keystone species, so their decline can have effects that are disproportionately large relative to their abundance.

  3. Trace the trophic cascade.

    Reduced predation can allow some prey populations to increase, altering lower trophic levels and resource availability.

  4. Connect biodiversity to resilience.

    Habitat conversion and food-web disruption reduce biodiversity and functional redundancy. With fewer species performing ecological roles, the ecosystem is less able to resist or recover after disturbance.

Final answerFarming reduces raptor habitat and can cause raptor populations to decline. Because raptors are keystone top predators, their loss weakens top-down control and can trigger trophic cascades that reduce biodiversity and destabilize the food web. Lower biodiversity and functional redundancy reduce the ecosystem's ability to recover from future disturbances, so resilience decreases.

Final AP Biology free-response checklist

  • Answer the command word. Identify, describe, explain, predict, justify, and evaluate require different levels of reasoning.
  • Use specific evidence. Include a value, trend, comparison, error bar, treatment, genotype, or diagram feature when the prompt provides data.
  • Connect cause to mechanism to outcome. A correct vocabulary term alone is rarely enough for an explanation.
  • Name what a control rules out. State the alternative explanation controlled by the comparison group.
  • Keep natural selection population-level. Include heritable variation, differential reproductive success, and allele-frequency change.
  • Separate glycolysis from fermentation. Glycolysis makes the ATP; fermentation regenerates \(NAD^+\).
  • Avoid overclaiming. Use “supports,” “is consistent with,” or “partially supports” when the evidence is observational or incomplete.